I am just wondering if there is anyone who is capable at this, would they be gracious enough to just take a peek at my work and let me know if I am doing anything that makes sense.
Here is one I just did.
f(n)=nlogn+n+logn
g(n)=nlogn
Proving that f(n) is in g(n) by showing there is a value M > 0, and a value K > 0 such that for every value of n>K f(n)<=M(g(n)).
Let K= 1 let M=3
1. n>K
2. n>1
3. nlogn>logn
4. nlogn>n
5. nlogn+nlogn+nlogn>nlogn+n+logn (from 3,4)
6. 3(nlogn)>nlogn+n+logn
Does this make sense?
This post has been edited by Ap0C552: 02 October 2011 - 05:15 PM

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