[JTHM]

I have some questions about the P?=NP and the L?=NL problems:

If L=NL, would that entail P=NP?
If L!=NL, would that entail P!=NP?

Citations would be helpful, if you have them.

Thanks in advance!

[mojo666]

No. We know NP contains P which contains NL which contains L. even if you prove that L=NL it is still possible P!=NP.

wiki

EDIT -
If you were to show that L=NP or NL=NP, then that would entail P=NP. To show P!=NP, you would have to show something like NL=P and NL!=NP

This post has been edited by mojo666: 12 October 2012 - 09:34 AM